Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why cant school buses ditch kids who are late to the bus at the school? Like on the way home, if a kid is late when all the others arrived to the bus on time, why cant they leave the late kid behind since its not fair to the on time kids to wait?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

As a NATO/Ukraine supporter, since you're so blown away and angered by Trump putting Zelensky in his place yesterday, why don't you support the Ukraine by joining the Ukrainian army? There's 200,000,000+ of you. Put your money where your mouths are.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Is LGBTQ destroying the world?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Read also: